| paul123 2006-08-26, 1:11 pm |
|
R. Mark Clayton wrote:
> "paul123" <paul@redy.net> wrote in message
> news:1156589586.426455.152170@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com...
>
> Because it never goes into the telephone network.
What, the BT network? surely, voiptalk to betamax and voiptalk to
sipgate are the same scenario - they don't touch BT. but they're not
behaving the same. Also, to add, they were behaving properly a week
ago. (I test call all my numbers once a week)
> In the UK (BT at least) the calling number ID has to be the same as one allocated
> to the line the call originates on. (otherwise you will get huge problems with
> spoofing).
I'm not trying to spoof the callerID
A further addition to this issue is that calling from voiptalk to my
Spanish landline - no callerID is passed and I'm getting diverted into
my "no ID - go to voice message IVR" (designed to not have to deal with
those endless sales calls) - so in this case no ID is being passed at
all! Calling from voipstunt, it behaves normally.
.....confused
|