R. Mark Clayton wrote:
> "paul123" <paul@redy.net> wrote in message
> news:1156589586.426455.152170@p79g2000cwp.googlegroups.com... 
>
> Because it never goes into the telephone network.

What, the BT network? surely, voiptalk to betamax and voiptalk to
sipgate are the same scenario - they don't touch BT. but they're not
behaving the same. Also, to add, they were behaving properly a week
ago. (I test call all my numbers once a week)

>  In the UK (BT at least) the calling number ID has to be the same as one a
llocated
>  to the line the call originates on.  (otherwise you will get huge problem
s with
>  spoofing).

I'm not trying to spoof the callerID

A further addition to this issue is that calling from voiptalk to my
Spanish landline - no callerID is passed and I'm getting diverted into
my "no ID - go to voice message IVR" (designed to not have to deal with
those endless sales calls) - so in this case no ID is being passed at
all! Calling from voipstunt, it behaves normally.

....confused

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